Which of the following does not contribute significantly to the operational value of a large cloud provider like AWS?
Which of the following are signs of a highly available application? (Choose two.)
How does the metered payment model make many benefits of cloud computing possible? (Choose two.)
Which of the following are direct benefits of server virtualization? (Choose two.)
What is a hypervisor?
Which of the following best describes server virtualization?
Which of the following best describes infrastructure-as-a-service products?
Which of the following best describes platform-as-a-service products?
Which of the following best describes software-as-a-service products?
Which of the following best describes scalability?
Which of the following best describes elasticity?
Which of the following characteristics most help AWS provide such scalable services? (Choose two.)
Which of the following EC2 services can be used without charge under the Free Tier?
You want to experiment with deploying a web server on an EC2 instance. Which two of the following resources can you include to make that work while remaining within the Free Tier? (Choose two.)
Which of the following usage will always be cost-free even after your account’s Free Tier has expired? (Choose two.)
Which of the following tools are available to ensure you won’t accidentally run past your Free Tier limit and incur unwanted costs? (Choose two.)
Which of the following is likely to be an accurate source of AWS pricing information?
Which of the following will probably not affect the pricing for an AWS service?
Which of the following AWS documentation URLs points to the page containing an up-to-date list of service limits?
Which of the following best describes one possible reason for AWS service limits?
Is it always possible to request service limit increases from AWS?
Which is the best place to get a quick summary of this month’s spend for your account?
What is the main goal for creating a Usage budget type (in AWS Budgets)?
Which of the following is not a setting you can configure in a Cost budget?
What is the main difference between the goals of Cost Explorer and of Cost and Usage reports?
What is the purpose of cost allocation tags?
Which of the following scenarios would be a good use case for AWS Organizations? (Choose two.)
Which of these tools lets you design graphs within the browser interface to track your account spending?
Your company is planning a major deployment on AWS. While the design and testing stages are still in progress, which of the following plans will provide the best blend of support and cost savings?
Your web development team is actively gearing up for a deployment of an e-commerce site. During these early stages of the process, individual developers are running into frustrating conflicts and configuration problems that are highly specific to your situation. Which of the following plans will provide the best blend of support and cost savings?
Your corporate website was offline last week for more than two hours—which caused serious consequences, including the early retirement of your CTO. Your engineers have been having a lot of trouble tracking down the source of the outage and admit that they need outside help. Which of the following will most likely meet that need?
For which of the following will AWS provide direct 24/7 support to all users—even those on the Basic Support plan?
The primary purpose of an AWS technical account manager is to:
Your Linux-based EC2 instance requires a patch to a Linux kernel module. The problem is that patching the module will, for some reason, break the connection between your instance and data in an S3 bucket. Your team doesn’t know if it’s possible to work around this problem. Which is the most cost-effective AWS plan through which support professionals will try to help you?
Your company enrolled in the Developer Support plan and, through the course of one month, consumed $4,000 USD of AWS services. How much will the support plan cost the company for the month?
Your company enrolled in the Business Support plan and, through the course of three months, consumed $33,000 of AWS services (the consumption was equally divided across the months). How much will the support plan cost the company for the full three months?
Which of the following AWS support services does not offer free documentation of some sort?
What is the key difference between the roles of AWS Professional Services and a technical account manager (TAM)?
Which of the following documentation sites are most likely to contain code snippets for you to cut and (after making sure you understand exactly what they’ll do) paste into your AWS operations? (Choose two.)
What is the primary function of the content linked from the Knowledge Center?
On which of the following sites are you most likely to find information about encrypting your AWS resources?
When using AWS documentation pages, what is the best way to be sure the information you’re reading is up-to-date?
Which of the following is not a Trusted Advisor category?
“Data volumes that aren’t properly backed up” is an example of which of these Trusted Advisor categories?
Instances that are running (mostly) idle should be identified by which of these Trusted Advisor categories?
Within the context of Trusted Advisor, what is a false positive?
Which of the following Trusted Advisor alerts is available only for accounts on the Business or Enterprise Support plan? (Choose two.)
Which of the following designations would refer to the AWS US West (Oregon) region?
Which of the following is an AWS region for which customer access is restricted?
When you request a new virtual machine instance in EC2, your instance will automatically launch into the currently selected value of which of the following?
Which of the following are not globally based AWS services? (Choose two.)
Which of the following would be a valid endpoint your developers could use to access a particular Relational Database Service instance you’re running in the Northern Virginia region?
What are the most significant architectural benefits of the way AWS designed its regions? (Choose two.)
Why is it that most AWS resources are tied to a single region?
You want to improve the resilience of your EC2 web server. Which of the following is the most effective and efficient approach?
Which of the following is the most accurate description of an AWS availability zone?
Which of the following most accurately describes a subnet within the AWS ecosystem?
What determines the order by which subnets/AZ options are displayed in EC2 configuration dialog boxes?
What is the primary goal of autoscaling?
Which of the following design strategies is most effective for maintaining the reliability of a cloud application?
Which of the following AWS services are not likely to benefit from Amazon edge locations? (Choose two.)
Which of the following is the primary benefit of using CloudFront distributions?
What is the main purpose of Amazon Route 53?
According to the AWS Shared Responsibility Model, which of the following are responsibil- ities of AWS? (Choose two.)
According to the AWS Shared Responsibility Model, what’s the best way to define the status of the software driving an AWS managed service?
Which of the following is one of the first places you should look when troubleshooting a failing application?
Where will you find information on the limits AWS imposes on the ways you can use your account resources?
What is the primary function of the AWS IAM service?
Which of the following are requirements you can include in an IAM password policy? (Choose three.)
Which of the following should you do to secure your AWS root user? (Choose two.)
How does multifactor authentication work?
Which of the following SSH commands will successfully connect to an EC2 Amazon Linux instance with an IP address of 54.7.35.103 using a key named mykey.pem?
What’s the most efficient method for managing permissions for multiple IAM users?
What is an IAM role?
How can federated identities be incorporated into AWS workflows? (Choose two.)
Which of the following are valid third-party federated identity standards? (Choose two.)
What information does the IAM credential report provide?
What text format does the credential report use?
Which of the following IAM policies is the best choice for the admin user you create in order to replace the root user for day-to-day administration tasks?
What will you need to provide for a new IAM user you’re creating who will use “program- matic access” to AWS resources?
What will IAM users with AWS Management Console access need to successfully log in?
Which of the following will encrypt your data while in transit between your office and Amazon S3?
Which of the following AWS resources cannot be encrypted using KMS?
What does KMS use to encrypt objects stored on your AWS account?
Which of the following standards governs AWS-based applications processing credit card transactions?
What is the purpose of the Service Organization Controls (SOC) reports found on AWS Artifact?
What role can the documents provided by AWS Artifact play in your application planning? (Choose two.)
Which of the following credentials can you use to log into the AWS Management Console?
How long will your session with the AWS Management Console remain active?
When looking at the EC2 service console in the AWS Management Console while logged in as the root user, you notice all of your instances are missing. What could be the reason?
Which of the following is true regarding a resource tag?
Which of the following is required to use the AWS Command-Line Interface (CLI)?
Which of the following are options for installing the AWS CLI on Windows 10? (Choose two.)
After installing the AWS Command-Line Interface, what should you do before using it to securely manage your AWS resources?
Which output format does the AWS CLI support?
Which of the following programming languages are AWS software development kits avail- able for? (Choose three.)
Which of the following software development kits (SDKs) enable developers to write mobile applications that run on both Apple and Android devices? (Choose two.)
Which of the following programming languages are AWS Internet of Things (IoT) device soft- ware development kits available for? (Choose two.)
What’s the difference between the AWS Command-Line Interface (CLI) and the AWS soft- ware development kits (SDK)? (Choose two.)
Which of the following CloudWatch features store performance data from AWS services?
For which of the following scenarios can you create a CloudWatch alarm to send a notification?
Which of the following Simple Notification Service (SNS) protocols can you use to send a notification? (Choose two.)
Which of the following are true regarding CloudWatch Events? (Choose two.)
Which of the following trigger an API action? (Choose two.)
What’s the most cost-effective way to view and search only the last 60 days of management API events on your AWS account?
You want to log every object downloaded from an S3 bucket in a specific region. You want to retain these logs indefinitely and search them easily. What’s the most cost-effective way to do this? (Choose two.)
What is a benefit of using CloudTrail log file integrity validation?
Which of the following Cost Explorer report types can show you the monthly costs for your reserved EC2 instances?
Which of the following services allow you to purchase reserved instances to save money?
Which Cost Explorer report shows the amount of money you’ve saved using reserved instances?
You’ve been running several Elasticsearch instances continuously for the past three months. You check the reserved instance recommendations in Cost Explorer but see no recommenda- tions. What could be a reason for this?
What is the function of an EC2 AMI?
Where can you find a wide range of verified AMIs from both AWS and third-party vendors?
Which of the following could be included in an EC2 AMI? (Choose two.)
Which of the following are EC2 instance type families? (Choose two.)
When describing EC2 instance types, what is the role played by the vCPU metric?
Which of the following describes an EC2 dedicated instance?
Which of the following describes an EBS volume?
Why might you want to use an instance store volume with your EC2 instance rather than a volume from the more common EBS service? (Choose two.)
Your web application experiences periodic spikes in demand that require the provisioning of extra instances. Which of the following pricing models would make the most sense for those extra instances?
Your web application experiences periodic spikes in demand that require the provisioning of extra instances. Which of the following pricing models would make the most sense for the “base” instances that will run constantly?
Which of the following best describes what happens when you purchase an EC2 reserved instance?
Which of the following use cases are good candidates for spot instances? (Choose two.)
Which AWS services simplify the process of bringing web applications to deployment? (Choose two.)
Which of the following services bills at a flat rate regardless of how it’s consumed?
Which of these stacks are available from Lightsail blueprints? (Choose two.)
Which of these AWS services use primarily EC2 resources under the hood? (Choose two.)
Which of the following AWS services are designed to let you deploy Docker containers? (Choose two.)
Which of the following directly use container technologies? (Choose two.)
What role can the Python programming language play in AWS Lambda?
What is the maximum time a Lambda function may run before timing out?
When you’re trying to create an S3 bucket named documents, AWS informs you that the bucket name is already in use. What should you do in order to create a bucket?
Which S3 storage classes are most cost-effective for infrequently accessed data that can’t be easily replaced? (Choose two.)
What are the major differences between Simple Storage Service (S3) and Elastic Block Store (EBS)? (Choose two.)
Which tasks can S3 object life-cycle configurations perform automatically? (Choose three.)
What methods can be used to grant anonymous access to an object in S3? (Choose two.)
Your budget-conscious organization has a 5 TB database file it needs to retain off-site for at least 5 years. In the event the organization needs to access the database, it must be accessible within 8 hours. Which cloud storage options should you recommend, and why? (Choose two.)
Which of the following actions can you perform from the S3 Glacier service console?
Which Glacier retrieval option generally takes 3 to 5 hours to complete?
What’s the minimum size for a Glacier archive?
Which types of AWS Storage Gateway let you connect your servers to block storage using the iSCSI protocol? (Choose two.)
Where does AWS Storage Gateway primarily store data?
You need an easy way to transfer files from a server in your data center to S3 without hav- ing to install any third-party software. Which of the following services and storage protocols could you use? (Choose four.)
Which of the following are true regarding the AWS Storage Gateway volume gateway config- uration? (Choose three.)
What’s the most data you can store on a single Snowball device?
Which of the following are security features of AWS Snowball? (Choose two.)
Which of the following might AWS do after receiving a damaged Snowball device from a customer?
Which of the following can you use to transfer data to AWS Snowball from a Windows machine without writing any code?
How do the AWS Snowball and Snowball Edge devices differ? (Choose two.)
Which of the following Snowball Edge device options is the best for running machine learning applications?
Which of the following hardware devices offers a network interface speed that supports up to 100 Gbps?
Which type of database stores data in columns and rows?
Which of the following Structured Query Language (SQL) statements can you use to write data to a relational database table?
Which of the following statements is true regarding nonrelational databases?
What is a no-SQL database?
What do new Relational Database Service (RDS) instances use for database storage?
Which of the following are database engine options for Amazon Relational Database Service (RDS)? (Choose two.)
What two databases is Amazon Aurora compatible with? (Choose two.)
Which of the following features of Relational Database Service (RDS) can prevent data loss in the event of an availability zone failure? (Choose two.)
Which RDS database engine offers automatically expanding database storage up to 64 TB?
Which of the following Relational Database Service (RDS) features can help you achieve a monthly availability of 99.95 percent?
What is true regarding a DynamoDB partition? (Choose two.)
What is the minimum monthly availability for DynamoDB in a single region?
Which of the following statements is true regarding a DynamoDB table?
Which configuration parameters can you adjust to improve write performance against a DynamoDB table? (Choose two.)
Which DynamoDB operation is the most read-intensive?
Which of the following would be appropriate to use for a primary key in a DynamoDB table that stores a customer list?
Which type of Redshift node uses magnetic storage?
Which Redshift feature can analyze structured data stored in S3?
What is the term for a relational database that stores large amounts of structured data from a variety of sources for reporting and analysis?
What’s the maximum amount of data you can store in a Redshift cluster when using dense storage nodes?
Which of the following are true of a default VPC? (Choose two.)
Which of the following is a valid CIDR for a VPC or subnet?
Which of the following are true regarding subnets? (Choose two.)
Which of the following is true of a new security group?
What’s the difference between a security group and a network access control list (NACL)? (Choose two.)
Which of the following is true of a VPC peering connection?
What are two differences between a virtual private network (VPN) connection and a Direct Connect connection? (Choose two.)
Which of the following are true about registering a domain name with Route 53? (Choose two.)
Which of the following Route 53 routing policies can return a set of randomly ordered values?
Which of the following Route 53 routing policies doesn’t use health checks?
Which of the following types of Route 53 health checks works by making a test connection to a TCP port?
You have two EC2 instances hosting a web application. You want to distribute 20 percent of traffic to one instance and 80 percent to the other. Which of the following Route 53 routing policies should you use?
Resources in a VPC need to be able to resolve internal IP addresses for other resources in the VPC. No one outside of the VPC should be able to resolve these addresses. Which of the fol- lowing Route 53 resources can help you achieve this?
You want to provide private name resolution for two VPCs using the domain name company.pri. How many private hosted zones do you need to create?
On how many continents are CloudFront edge locations distributed?
From where does CloudFront retrieve content to store for caching?
Which CloudFront distribution type requires you to provide a media player?
You need to deliver content to users in the United States and Canada. Which of the following edge location options will be the most cost-effective for your CloudFront distribution?
Approximately how many different CloudFront edge locations are there?
Which of the following are valid origins for a CloudFront distribution? (Choose two.)
Which of the following is an advantage of using CloudFormation?
What formats do CloudFormation templates support? (Choose two.)
What’s an advantage of using parameters in a CloudFormation template?
Why would you use CloudFormation to automatically create resources for a development environment instead of creating them using AWS CLI commands? (Choose two.)
What are two features of CodeCommit? (Choose two.)
In the context of CodeCommit, what can differencing accomplish?
What software development practice regularly tests new code for bugs but doesn’t do anything else?
Which CodeBuild build environment compute types support Windows operating systems? (Choose two.)
What does a CodeBuild environment always contain? (Choose two.)
Which of the following can CodeDeploy do? (Choose three.)
What is the minimum number of actions in a CodePipeline pipeline?
You want to predefine the configuration of EC2 instances that you plan to launch manually and using Auto Scaling. What resource must you use?
What Auto Scaling group parameters set the limit for the number of instances that Auto Scal- ing creates? (Choose two.)
An Auto Scaling group has a desired capacity of 7 and a maximum size of 7. What will Auto Scaling do if someone manually terminates one of these instances?
What Auto Scaling feature creates a scaling schedule based on past usage patterns?
What type of AWS Systems Manager document can run Bash or PowerShell scripts on an EC2 instance?
What type of AWS Systems Manager document can take a snapshot of an EC2 instance?
Which of the following OpsWorks services uses Chef recipes?
What configuration management platforms does OpsWorks support? (Choose two.)
Which of the following OpsWorks Stacks layers contains at least one EC2 instance?
Which of the following is not one of the pillars of the Well-Architected Framework?
Which of the following are examples of applying the principles of the security pillar of the Well-Architected Framework? (Choose two.)
You’re hosting a web application on two EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group. The performance of the application is consistently acceptable. Which of the following can help maintain or improve performance efficiency? (Choose two.)
Which of the following can help achieve cost optimization? (Choose two.)
Which of the following is a key component of operational excellence?
Your default VPC in the us-west-1 region has three default subnets. How many availability zones are in this region?
Your organization is building a database-backed web application that will sit behind an application load balancer. You add an inbound security group rule to allow HTTP traffic on TCP port 80. Where should you apply this security group to allow users to access the application?
How does an application load balancer enable reliability?
Which of the following contains the configuration information for instances in an Auto Scaling group?
You’ve created a target tracking policy for an Auto Scaling group. You want to ensure that the number of instances in the group never exceeds 5. How can you accomplish this?
Which of the following is an example of a static website?
Which of the following features of S3 improve the security of data you store in an S3 bucket? (Choose two.)
Which of the following is required to enable S3 static website hosting on a bucket?
You’ve created a static website hosted on S3 and given potential customers the URL that con- sists of words and numbers. They’re complaining that it’s too hard to type in. How can you come up with a friendlier URL?
Which of the following is true regarding static websites hosted in S3?
Which of the following can impact the reliability of a web application running on EC2 instances?
You have a public web application running on EC2 instances. Which of the following factors affecting the performance of your application might be out of your control?
An Auto Scaling group can use an EC2 system health check to determine whether an instance is healthy. What other type of health check can it use?
You’re hosting a static website on S3. Your web assets are stored under the STANDARD storage class. Which of the following is true regarding your site?
You’re hosting a static website on S3. Your web assets are stored in the US East 1 Region in the bucket named mygreatwebsite. What is the URL of the website?